Numbers

Sumit added the first n natural numbers. However, he added one of the numbers twice, by mistake, and obtained the sum as 640. Find the number that was added twice.


See our previous ‘Questions of the Day’:
Quant Question Of The Day: 269
Quant Question Of The Day: 268

Games and Tournaments

In the qualifiers for the 2019 ICC Cricket World Cup, cricket teams from European countries Netherlands and Ireland, African countries Zimbabwe and Kenya, and Asian countries Afghanistan and UAE were the only six participants.

The format of the Qualifiers is as follows –

  • The top two teams (in terms of number of matches won) qualified for the world cup. In case of a tie for the top two teams, the two teams that qualify for the world cup was to be decided in a tie-breaker round.
  • Two matches were played every day over six days (Monday to Saturday). One match each was played in the morning slot and in the evening slot every day.
  • The teams playing the evening match did not play the next day.
  • Each team played four matches, one match against every team except the team from the same continent.
  • Every team played two morning and two evening matches.
  • No team play two matches in a day.

The following information regarding the schedule for the tournament is known.

1. All teams except Ireland played their morning matches on consecutive days.
2. Afghanistan won all their matches while Kenya lost all their matches.
3. UAE won their match on Friday evening.
4. Ireland lost its match on Saturday morning.
5. Afghanistan defeated the teams from Europe on Tuesday evening and Thursday morning.


1. Which team played against UAE on Friday evening?
A. Netherlands
B. Zimbabwe
C. Ireland
D. Cannot be determined

2. How many teams played their evening matches on alternate days?

3. If UAE lost both their remaining matches, then which team of qualified for the World Cup 2019, if it is known that tie-breaker was not required? (Here remaining matches means the matches whose outcomes are not known to us.)
A. Netherlands
B. Zimbabwe
C. Ireland
D. Cannot be determined

FILL IN THE BLANKS

The political ideologies born out of the French Revolution were particularly______because they came with moving pictures that disclosed how the present emerged from a comprehensible past and was now moving toward a/an_______future.

1. compelling, perceivable
2. conclusive, obscure
3. paramount, perplexing
4. sterile, intelligible

Set Theory

In a residential society, there are 120 people who either consume only tea or only coffee. Of those 120 people, 25 are children (which includes male as well as female children), and 78 consume tea. The number of males who consume coffee plus the number of children who consume tea is equal to 61. The number of females who consume tea plus the number of children who consume coffee is equal to 73. The total number of males is 14 less than the number of females in the society.

1. What is the number of females in the society who consume coffee?

2. What is the number of males in the society who consume tea?

Blood Relations

A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8, A9 and A10 are ten members of the same family. There are three couples out of the ten persons in the family. The persons are related to each other as:
I. A7 is the brother-in-law of A9 and has one unmarried sister-in-law
II. A6 is the grandmother of A10.
III. A5 has one nephew and two nieces.
IV. A10 is the only cousin of A4.
V. A1 is married and has one sister-in-law.
VI. A8 is the sister of one person and the daughter of another person among the given people.
VII. A9 is son of A2. He is married and has one son and no daughter.

1, The gender of how many persons can be uniquely determined?

2. How many of the following statements is/are true?
I. A1 has two daughters
II. A5 has two brothers
III. A2 has two grand-daughters
IV. A7 has two nieces


3. How many of the following statements is/are true?
I. A1 has two daughters
II. A5 has two brothers
III. A2 has two grand-daughters
IV. A7 has two nieces


An exam consisted of 5 sections- QA, DI, LR, VA and RC. The marks per question for these sections are 4, 3, 2, 5 and 3 respectively. The number of questions in each of these sections ranges between 5 and 9, both included, such that no two sections have the same number of questions. The maximum marks that one could have scored are 120. The time limit is 3 minutes per question for QA, DI and LR questions while it is 2 minutes per question for the other two sections. VA had 6 questions. For a section having 7 or more questions, an additional time limit of 1 minute per quetion is provided (in addition to the time limit of 2 or 3 minutes per question mentioned above).

1. How many questions did the LR section have?

2. What is the maximum possible time duration of the exam (in minutes)?

3. How many questions did DI section have?

A. 8
B. 9
C. 7
D. Cannot be determined

4. How many questions did QA section Have?

A. 8
B. 9
C. 7
D. Cannot be determined

Mrs Cake has a total of 10 pastries of four different types– 2 Black Forest, 3 Pineapple, 3 Chocolate Truffle and 2 Mixed Fruit. She gave these ten pastries to four children – Chintu, Pinki, Babloo and Monu, such that no child received more than one pastry of any type and every child received at least one pastry.

1] Babloo neither received Mixed Fruit nor Pineapple.
2] No child received the same number of pastries as Chintu.
3] Neither Pinki nor Chintu got a Black Forest.
4] One child received only a Black Forest and a Chocolate Truffle.

How many pastries did Monu receive ?

How many children received a Chocolate Truffle and a Pine Apple?

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